Recently, (in another vehicle) I experienced an oil leak while under load (3-4k rpm) pulling a loaded trailer up hills. Over the course of a few hundred miles, I lost about 2.5 quarts. The oil was blown all over the lower half of the engine making it impossible to determine the direct area of the leak. Once the trailer was removed and the engine pressure washed, I ran the vehicle in the driveway at 3-4k rpm for a good minute or two. No leaks. I then drove the vehicle (no trailer) for a week with liberal use of the right foot. Again no leaks. My father then posed the question to me about oil pressure under load vs. oil pressure at no load. The question is, would the oil pressure be higher at the exact same rpm in a loaded engine versus an engine pulling no load (or minimal load)?
Mechanically, the oil pump is meant to push a certain volume of oil at a certain pressure at a certain rpm. Therefore, it seems to make no sense that the pressure would be any higher at identical rpms. However, I know that the oil leak was present under load and not when unloaded. This is further documented by the fact that during the same mileage, I lost no more than 1/4 quart unloaded.
Thoughts on this?
Mechanically, the oil pump is meant to push a certain volume of oil at a certain pressure at a certain rpm. Therefore, it seems to make no sense that the pressure would be any higher at identical rpms. However, I know that the oil leak was present under load and not when unloaded. This is further documented by the fact that during the same mileage, I lost no more than 1/4 quart unloaded.
Thoughts on this?
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